Online Practice Test Paper IBPS PO-22

1. Directions (1-4): Read the following passage and answer the questions as directed.
Paragraph 1- One of the easiest ways to establish a savings habit is to participate in your employer’s
401(k) plan. Funds are withheld from each paycheck and deposited into your account. If your employer
matches part of your contribution — and many do! — you will accumulate yet more. A second way to
consistently save is with an automatic savings transfer program with your financial institution. You decide
how much and when you want funds transferred from your checking account into a savings account. You
can also use a payroll deduction plan from your employer and get the same results.
Paragraph 2- Along with how much and how often you save, what you earn on your funds will determine
how fast your money grows. You cannot control what happens with interest rates or the stock market, but
you can consider different types of savings vehicles that provide different returns. The simplest savings
vehicle to consider is buying certificates of deposit (CDs) instead of leaving funds in a savings account. CDs
usually offer higher interest rates, but they are time deposits and have …………… for early withdrawal. If you
can accept not having immediate access to your funds, CDs can be an attractive savings vehicle.
Q1. Which of the following can be inferred as the theme of the passage?

2. Q2. Which of the following can replace the word given in bold in the passage?

3. Q3. What is the tone of writing in the passage?

4. Q4. Which of the following words can fill in the blank to make it
meaningful?

5. Directions (5-7): Read the following paragraph and answer the questions as directed.
Budgeting is an important tool for saving. First, you need to segregate all your income and expenses. Now,
categorise your expenses as least important, important and very important to prioritise them while settling
them through your income, which is limited. Try to figure out ways in which you can increase expenses.
Ensure that your income exceeds the expenses with as wider a margin as possible. The surplus fund after
meeting all the expenses would be your saving. It is only after you have assured savings that you can
thinking about investment.
Q5. Which of the followings is the correct chronology of steps as can be inferred from the passage?

6. Q6. Which of the following words, opposite of the word given in bold, should replace the word given
in bold in the passage?

7. Q7. Which of the following is the best way of writing the line given in italics in the paragraph,
without changing its intended meaning?

8. Directions (8-10): Read the following paragraph and answer the questions as directed.
The way most of us save is to put away whatever is left after all expenses are taken care of, or put away any
surplus income. But that is not the best way of saving and there are chances of us falling short. A very
stringent savings plan that favours future demands over current aspirations is also likely to fail. Instead, a
better approach is where due consideration is given to current and future needs. This will help divide the
available income between current consumption and future saving. If an expense or a need is too large to
be met out of the regular income, earmark it for the future. So the …………….. way to buy a coveted watch is
not to swipe the credit card and commit yourself to debt, but to set aside money from your current income
and buy the watch when you have the required funds.

Q8. Which of the following can be best inferred from the paragraph?

9. Q9. Which of the following word should fill in the blank in the paragraph?

10. Q10. Which of the following can be next line after the last line of the given paragraph?
.

11. Directions (11-13): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Pakistan’s Army and political leadership are on “one page” to take dialogue with India forward, Pakistan’s
Prime Minister Imran Khan said on Wednesday at the ground-breaking ceremony for the corridor.
Pakistan’s Chief of Army Staff General Qamar Bajwa was also present.
The four-kilometre corridor from the border with India will allow
pilgrims easy access and will be ready in time for Sikh founder Guru
Nanak’s 550th birth anniversary on November 23, 2019.
In a speech largely reaching out to the Indian government to “break
the shackles of the past” and restart engagement, Mr. Khan also struck
a discordant note on Kashmir, referring to the dispute as the “single
issue” between India and Pakistan. India has maintained that
terrorism sponsored by Pakistan is holding back the dialogue
process. Asked about the reference, Ms. Badal told The Hindu that the
remark didn’t change the Indian stand.

Q11. Which of the following assumptions could be drawn out most appropriately from a clause in
the first paragraph ‘Pakistan’s Army and political leadership are on “one page” to take dialogue
with India forward’?
(I) In Pakistan, to have a dialogue with India, there should be a consensus between Pakistan’s Army and
the Pakistan’s political leadership.
(II) There is a paper of high strength present in Pakistan where Pakistan’s Army and the Pakistan’s political
leadership could stand together.
(III) Pakistan’s political leadership could independently take forward dialogue with India.

12. Q12. What does Mr. Khan mean by referring to the Kashmir dispute as the “single issue” between
India and Pakistan?

13. Q13. Which of the following words has the meaning which is SIMILAR to the meaning ‘discordant’?

14. Directions (14-16): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
The government is of the view that IndiGo and SpiceJet should withdraw their web check-in fee, according
to a top source in the Ministry of Civil Aviation.
IndiGo and SpiceJet recently revised their web check-in policies to include a levy for air travellers opting
for web check-in for any seat in an aircraft. Earlier, passengers would have to pay extra only for certain
preferred seats. “We have told the two airlines to remove the new fee,” the source told The Hindu. The
Ministry had already met the airlines’ officials and would be holding another meeting with them.
Asked how the government could intervene since airlines were allowed to unbundle fares and charge
separately for preferential seating, meal-on-board, check-in baggage and use of airline lounges, a senior
official said airlines should incentivise web check-in.

Q14. Which of the followings, as mentioned in the passage, could create hurdles for the government
in its desire to intervene and convince Indigo and SpiceJet to withdraw web check-in fee?

15. Q15. Which of the following statements, if true, would encourage the government to convince Indigo and
SpiceJet to withdraw their web check-in fee?
(I) Keeping web check-in free would encourage passengers to opt for it, would allow the passengers to
come to airport not too early and in effect would help in controlling the number of passengers in an airport
and would help the security personnel in the security management of an airport.
(II) Levying fee to web check-in would either make air-travel costly or increase discomfort to the airline
passengers. This might discourage people to opt for air travel and would be against the aspiration of the
government to increase the overall number of air travel passengers.
(III) Levying fee to web check-in would discourage the passengers to opt for it and might decrease the
usage of internet to avail important services, in contradiction to the objective of the Digital India Initiative.

16. Q16. Which of the following words has a meaning which is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word ‘withdraw’?

17. Directions (17-19): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Noting that the 1984 anti-Sikh riots were a “dark chapter in the history of independent India,” the Delhi
High Court on Wednesday upheld the conviction of 70 persons on the charges of rioting, burning houses
and violating curfew in the Trilokpuri area in the national capital.
The riots took place after the assassination of Indira Gandhi. Justice R.K. Gauba dismissed the appeals of
the convicts against the August 27, 1996, judgment of a sessions court here, sending 89 persons to jail for
five years.
The judge said: “Thirty-four years have passed, yet the victims await justice and closure.” Of the 89, 16 died
during the pendency of the trial before the High Court, which dragged on for 22 years. The court dismissed
the appeal of three more convicts who absconded during the trial.
“The manner of prosecution of the case at hand would undoubtedly go down in the judicial history of this
country as an example of criminal law process that must never be emulated,” the High Court said.
Q17. Why did the Delhi High Court use the phrase ‘Dark Chapter
in the history of Independent India’?

18. Q18. What is the opinion of the Delhi High Court about the
manner of prosecution of the 1984 anti-Sikh riots?

19. Q19. Which of the following words has a meaning which is SIMILAR in meaning to the word
‘absconded’?

20. Directions (20-21): Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions given below it.
Certain words are given in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
Justice Kurian Joseph, one of the senior-most judges of the Supreme Court, on Wednesday said the courts
had been imposing the death penalty “arbitrarily and freakishly”.
Justice Kurian, in his judgment while heading a three-judge Bench hearing the appeal of a man sentenced
to death, said the test of “rarest of rare” had been “inconsistently applied” by courts. The other two judges,
Justices Deepak Gupta and Hemant Gupta, disagreed that death penalty was “freakishly” imposed.
Q20. Which of the followings judges believe that courts have failed to uphold the principle of
justice?

21. Q21. Which of the following words has a meaning which is OPPOSITE in meaning to the word ‘disagreed’?

22. Directions (22-31): Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions.
The system of “local welfare” schemes set up less than five years ago to provide emergency help to
England’s poorest families, often to help them cope with delays and sanctions to their benefits, is on the
(A) of collapse, say poverty campaigners. (B) A survey of more than 150 council-run schemes by Church
Action on Poverty found that nearly a quarter had been shutted down since 2013, while a further quarter have
reduced spending by 85% or more. More are expected to close in the next few months. (C) The destitution
(1) of local welfare would put tens of thousands of vulnerable (2) people at increased risk (3) of hunger,
debt and demise (4), the charity said. The system was designed to help people on low incomes deal with
unexpected hardship, (D):——————, or domestic crises such as broken boilers, house fires and
flooding. Huge cuts to council budgets have left the system, which replaced the old social fund, struggling
to survive. Provision is so uneven that thousands of people cannot access emergency help from the state,
Church Action on Poverty said. “Local authority welfare schemes are increasingly (E), leaving families in
many areas with nowhere to turn for help,” said the bishop of Manchester, David Walker. “It cannot be right
for central and local government to (F) abdicate responsibility for people in crisis when they need our
help most.” In many areas, the most common reason for an application for crisis support is delays or
sanctions to benefits, with some councils noting that the five-week minimum wait for a first universal
credit payment is an emerging factor in rising demand. Universal credit claimants facing hardship who
contact Department for Work and Pensions (DWP) helplines for help are routinely directed to local welfare
schemes in their areas if they do not qualify for official advance loans or hardship funds. Church leaders
and anti-poverty charities called on ministers to make local welfare provision a legal duty for top-tier
councils, and to provide ringfenced funding to protect crisis services. The 153 councils that responded to
the survey collectively reduced spending on local welfare by an average of 72% between 2013-2014 and 2017-
2018. (G) Local welfare provision replaced the discretionary social fund, which in its final year spent £240m
in crisis loans and community care grants. (H) It was going (1) to councils with DWP funding (2) in 2013
but that cash was stopped (3) in 2015, with councils left to decide whether to keep the schemes devolved
(4). Huge budget pressures faced by councils mean even authorities that have protected local welfare in
the past are proposing drastic cuts. West Sussex county council recently unveiled plans for an 80%
reduction in its £800,000 crisis fund from next April. (I) Local welfare has been controversially as most
councils refuse to give cash payments to clients in crisis, choosing instead to offer supermarket food vouchers
or refer them to food banks. In one case, Isle of Wight council offered a 62-year-old homeless woman a
voucher to buy a tent. Only two English councils – Islington in north London and North Tyneside in the
north-east – had higher local welfare budget cash totals year compared with 2013, by 12% and 4%
respectively. Niall Cooper, the director of Church Action on Poverty, said: “The (J) …………… of the social
fund was that people could stay afloat and hopefully ride out a crisis, rather than sinking deeper into
poverty. A lifeline in times of emergency is a vital part of a compassionate society, but it has been
withdrawn in many places and neglected almost everywhere.”

Q22. Which of the following word given in the options should
come at the place marked as (A) in the above paragraph to make
it grammatically correct and meaningful. Also, the word should
fill in the two sentences given below to make them contextually
correct and meaningful.
(i) She stood out of his way, barely able to care for a child and at a loss
as to what to do with a boy on the …………………. of becoming a
teenager.
(ii) He found the country on the …………………. of revolution; but the
wisdom of the new monarch saved the situation and won back the
Magyars.

23. Q23. In the passage given, a sentence (B) is given in italics. There may or may not be an error in one
part of the sentence. Choose the part which has an error in it as your answer. If there in no error
then choose option (e) as your answer.

24. Q24. The sentence given in (C) has four words given in bold. Amongst the given bold words which
of the following must replace each other to make the sentence contextually correct and meaningful.

25. Q25. Which of the following phrases should fill the blank in (D) to make it contextually correct and
meaningful?

26. Q26. Which of the following word given in the options should come at the place marked as E in the
above paragraph to make it grammatically correct and meaningful. Also, the word should fill in the
two sentences given below to make them contextually correct and meaningful.
(i) After living in the woods for a week without supplies, my ……………….. clothing was not protecting me
from the elements.
(ii) The Defence Department generally defended its existing programs, though the rationale for them was
growing ………………………..

27. Q27. A word is given in bold in (F). Choose the word which should replace the word given in bold to
make the sentence correct and meaningful. If no change is required, choose option (e) as your
answer.

28. Q28. Two sentences are given in italics on both sides of (G). Which of the following statements can
come in between the two sentences in place of (G) and maintain the continuity of the paragraph?

29. Q29. The sentence given in (H) has four words given in bold. Amongst the given bold words which
of the following must replace each other to make the sentence contextually correct and meaningful.

30. Q30. In the passage given, a sentence (I) is given in italics. There may or may not be an error in one
part of the sentence. Choose the part which has an error in it as your answer. If there in no error
then choose option (e) as your answer.
(

31. Q31. Which of the following words should fill the blank given in (J) to make it contextually correct
and meaningful?

32. Directions (32-35): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper
sequence to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions given below.
(A) With the change from traditional to industrial food processing there has also been a change in the types
of product processed.
(B) In the early days of traditional food processing the main aim was preservation to maintain a supply of
wholesome, nutritious food during the year and in particular to preserve it for hungry periods, for example
when hunting was poor.
(C) Nowadays non-traditional crops are grown all over the world. This together with consumer demand
influenced by radio, advertising and television has led to a demand for non-traditional foods that are not
appropriate to the local environment.
(D) While food processing still has the main objective of providing a safe nutritious diet in order to maintain
health other aspects, particularly the generation of wealth for the producer and seller, have become
increasingly important.
(E) Traditional processors worked with foods that grew locally and the methods they developed were in
harmony with the climate in which they lived.
(F) Only simple packaging using leaves, animal skins and pottery was possible and necessary to protect the
food for its planned storage life.
Q32. Considering statement (D) “While food processing still has the main objective of providing a
safe nutritious diet in order to maintain health other aspects, particularly the generation of wealth
for the producer and seller, have become increasingly important.” as the second sentence of the
rearranged paragraph, then which of the following aptly expresses the theme of the paragraph after
rearrangement?

33. Q33. Considering statement (D) “While food processing still has
the main objective of providing a safe nutritious diet in order to
maintain health other aspects, particularly the generation of
wealth for the producer and seller, have become increasingly
important.” as the second sentence of the rearranged paragraph,
then which among the following should be the FOURTH sentence
of the rearranged paragraph?

34. Q34. Considering statement (D) “While food processing still has the main objective of providing a
safe nutritious diet in order to maintain health other aspects, particularly the generation of wealth
for the producer and seller, have become increasingly important.” as the second sentence of the
rearranged paragraph, then which among the following should follow the last sentence after the
rearrangement?

35. Q35. Considering statement (D) “While food processing still has the main objective of providing a
safe nutritious diet in order to maintain health other aspects, particularly the generation of wealth
for the producer and seller, have become increasingly important.” as the second sentence of the
rearranged paragraph, then which among the following should coherently link the first and the
second sentence of the paragraph, without altering the context of the paragraph?